KADSUBEB Teachers Promotion Exams Past Questions & Answers: 200 Practice Questions for Revision

The KADSUBEB Teacher Promotion Examination is an important assessment for teachers seeking career progression within the Kaduna State education system. Proper preparation requires more than reading notes. Candidates need to understand teaching principles, practise calculations, improve their English language skills and become familiar with basic computer and ICT concepts.

This page provides 200 KADSUBEB teacher promotion examination practice questions and answers covering four important areas: Pedagogy, Mathematics, English Language, and Computer/ICT.

The questions are arranged into four sections, with 50 questions in each section. They are designed to help teachers test their knowledge before the examination and identify areas that require further revision.

Important note: This material is a revision resource compiled around common teacher promotion examination topics. It should not be treated as an official KADSUBEB examination paper or as a guarantee of the questions that will appear in a particular examination.

Candidates are encouraged to attempt each question before checking the answer. This approach makes revision more effective than simply memorising the options.

Table of Contents

KADSUBEB Teacher Promotion Examination: Areas to Revise

Before attempting the questions, candidates should pay attention to the following areas:

  • Educational psychology
  • Teaching methods
  • Lesson planning
  • Classroom management
  • Assessment and evaluation
  • Bloom’s Taxonomy
  • Inclusive education
  • Learning theories
  • Basic mathematics
  • Fractions and percentages
  • Ratio and proportion
  • Algebra
  • Geometry
  • Statistics and probability
  • English grammar
  • Vocabulary and idioms
  • Concord
  • Sentence structure
  • Computer hardware and software
  • Microsoft Office
  • Internet and networking
  • Cybersecurity
  • ICT in education
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Link to Print CBT Examination Slip:

https://portal.subeb.kdsg.gov.ng

SECTION A: PEDAGOGY – 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Pedagogy is one of the most important areas for teachers because it deals with teaching, learning and the processes involved in helping learners acquire knowledge and skills. Candidates should understand not only definitions but also how different teaching approaches are applied in the classroom.

1. Pedagogy is best described as the:

A. Science of school administration
B. Art and science of teaching
C. Study of school buildings
D. Management of school finances

Answer: B. Art and science of teaching

2. The main purpose of teaching is to:

A. Keep learners quiet
B. Facilitate meaningful learning
C. Give learners assignments daily
D. Prepare examination questions

Answer: B. Facilitate meaningful learning

3. A learner-centred approach focuses mainly on:

A. The teacher
B. The textbook
C. The learner’s needs and abilities
D. Examination results

Answer: C. The learner’s needs and abilities

4. Which method encourages learners to work together?

A. Lecture
B. Cooperative learning
C. Dictation
D. Demonstration

Answer: B. Cooperative learning

5. The lecture method is particularly suitable for:

A. Large groups
B. Practical experiments only
C. Individual counselling
D. Laboratory work only

Answer: A. Large groups

6. Demonstration is especially useful for teaching:

A. Practical skills
B. Abstract definitions only
C. Silent reading
D. Spelling only

Answer: A. Practical skills

7. A lesson plan is primarily a:

A. School record
B. Guide for teaching and learning activities
C. Learner attendance register
D. Financial document

Answer: B. Guide for teaching and learning activities

8. The introductory stage of a lesson is called:

A. Evaluation
B. Set induction
C. Assignment
D. Conclusion

Answer: B. Set induction

9. Set induction helps to:

A. Punish learners
B. Gain learners’ attention
C. End a lesson
D. Record attendance

Answer: B. Gain learners’ attention

10. SMART objectives include:

A. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant and Time-bound
B. Simple, Modern, Accurate, Reliable and Tested
C. Specific, Modern, Active, Realistic and Technical
D. Standard, Measurable, Academic, Relevant and Timely

Answer: A. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant and Time-bound

11. Formative assessment is conducted:

A. Only at the end of the year
B. During the learning process
C. Before admission
D. After graduation

Answer: B. During the learning process

12. Summative assessment is normally conducted:

A. During every lesson
B. At the end of instruction or a course
C. Before teaching begins
D. During registration

Answer: B. At the end of instruction or a course

13. Diagnostic assessment helps teachers to:

A. Identify learning difficulties
B. Punish weak learners
C. Award certificates
D. Employ teachers

Answer: A. Identify learning difficulties

14. Reliability of a test refers to its:

A. Difficulty
B. Consistency
C. Length
D. Appearance

Answer: B. Consistency

15. Validity refers to whether a test:

A. Is easy
B. Measures what it is intended to measure
C. Has many questions
D. Is completed quickly

Answer: B. Measures what it is intended to measure

16. Bloom’s Taxonomy was originally developed by:

A. Benjamin Bloom
B. John Dewey
C. Jean Piaget
D. Abraham Maslow

Answer: A. Benjamin Bloom

17. The highest level in the revised Bloom’s Taxonomy is:

A. Remembering
B. Applying
C. Evaluating
D. Creating

Answer: D. Creating

18. Jean Piaget is associated with:

A. Cognitive development
B. Classical conditioning
C. Operant conditioning
D. Hierarchy of needs

Answer: A. Cognitive development

19. Abraham Maslow developed the:

A. Cognitive development theory
B. Hierarchy of needs
C. Social learning theory
D. Classical conditioning theory

Answer: B. Hierarchy of needs

20. Albert Bandura is associated with:

A. Social learning theory
B. Psychoanalysis
C. Classical conditioning
D. Hierarchy of needs

Answer: A. Social learning theory

21. Ivan Pavlov is associated with:

A. Operant conditioning
B. Classical conditioning
C. Social learning
D. Cognitive development

Answer: B. Classical conditioning

22. B. F. Skinner is associated with:

A. Operant conditioning
B. Cognitive development
C. Social learning
D. Constructivism

Answer: A. Operant conditioning

23. Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development emphasizes:

A. Learning without assistance
B. What learners can achieve with appropriate support
C. Examination grading
D. School administration

Answer: B. What learners can achieve with appropriate support

24. Scaffolding means:

A. Temporary support provided to learners
B. Punishing weak learners
C. Giving learners extra examinations
D. Reducing the curriculum

Answer: A. Temporary support provided to learners

25. Intrinsic motivation comes from:

A. External rewards
B. Internal interest or satisfaction
C. Punishment
D. Parents

Answer: B. Internal interest or satisfaction

26. Extrinsic motivation comes from:

A. Internal interest
B. External rewards or consequences
C. Personal curiosity only
D. Self-reflection

Answer: B. External rewards or consequences

27. Classroom management aims to create:

A. A conducive learning environment
B. A silent classroom at all times
C. Fear among learners
D. Competition only

Answer: A. A conducive learning environment

28. Effective classroom discipline should begin with:

A. Corporal punishment
B. Clear rules and expectations
C. Expulsion
D. Suspension

Answer: B. Clear rules and expectations

29. Positive reinforcement involves:

A. Encouraging desirable behaviour
B. Ignoring good behaviour
C. Punishing every mistake
D. Removing classroom rules

Answer: A. Encouraging desirable behaviour

30. Differentiated instruction means:

A. Teaching everyone exactly the same way
B. Adapting instruction to learners’ different needs
C. Teaching only gifted learners
D. Reducing the curriculum

Answer: B. Adapting instruction to learners’ different needs

31. Inclusive education means:

A. Educating only high achievers
B. Providing learning opportunities for all learners
C. Separating learners with disabilities
D. Teaching only one group

Answer: B. Providing learning opportunities for all learners

32. Microteaching is mainly used to:

A. Practise teaching skills
B. Conduct national examinations
C. Manage school finances
D. Replace classroom teaching

Answer: A. Practise teaching skills

33. Reflective teaching involves:

A. Reviewing teaching practice to improve it
B. Repeating lessons without change
C. Avoiding feedback
D. Ignoring learners’ performance

Answer: A. Reviewing teaching practice to improve it

34. Continuous professional development helps teachers to:

A. Improve professional knowledge and skills
B. Avoid teaching
C. Reduce their responsibilities
D. Replace the curriculum

Answer: A. Improve professional knowledge and skills

35. A teaching aid is used mainly to:

A. Make learning clearer and more concrete
B. Replace the teacher
C. Increase punishment
D. Reduce learner participation

Answer: A. Make learning clearer and more concrete

36. A curriculum is best described as:

A. A school timetable only
B. Planned learning experiences
C. A register
D. An examination paper

Answer: B. Planned learning experiences

37. The affective domain relates mainly to:

A. Physical skills
B. Attitudes, values and emotions
C. Memory only
D. Numerical ability

Answer: B. Attitudes, values and emotions

38. The psychomotor domain relates mainly to:

A. Physical and motor skills
B. Attitudes
C. Emotions
D. Memory

Answer: A. Physical and motor skills

39. The cognitive domain relates mainly to:

A. Thinking and intellectual abilities
B. Physical movement
C. Emotions only
D. Social relationships only

Answer: A. Thinking and intellectual abilities

40. A teacher’s feedback should generally be:

A. Constructive and timely
B. Insulting
C. Delayed unnecessarily
D. Based on personal bias

Answer: A. Constructive and timely

41. Peer assessment involves:

A. Teachers assessing themselves
B. Learners assessing one another’s work
C. Parents marking examinations
D. Principals marking every assignment

Answer: B. Learners assessing one another’s work

42. Self-assessment involves learners:

A. Evaluating their own learning
B. Marking teachers
C. Setting school fees
D. Preparing the curriculum

Answer: A. Evaluating their own learning

43. Remedial teaching is designed to:

A. Address identified learning difficulties
B. Punish weak learners
C. Replace normal teaching
D. Teach only advanced learners

Answer: A. Address identified learning difficulties

44. A good learning objective should be:

A. Vague
B. Measurable
C. Impossible
D. Unrelated to the lesson

Answer: B. Measurable

45. Inquiry-based learning encourages learners to:

A. Ask questions and investigate
B. Memorise everything
C. Remain passive
D. Avoid discussion

Answer: A. Ask questions and investigate

46. Problem-based learning focuses on:

A. Realistic problems and their solutions
B. Memorising notes
C. Teacher lectures only
D. Copying from the board

Answer: A. Realistic problems and their solutions

47. Cooperative learning promotes:

A. Collaboration
B. Isolation
C. Competition only
D. Teacher domination

Answer: A. Collaboration

48. The teacher’s role in learner-centred education is mainly that of a:

A. Facilitator
B. Dictator
C. Examiner only
D. Spectator

Answer: A. Facilitator

49. Effective questioning can promote:

A. Critical thinking
B. Silence only
C. Memorisation only
D. Punishment

Answer: A. Critical thinking

50. The ultimate goal of effective teaching is:

A. Meaningful learning
B. Completing notes only
C. Giving many assignments
D. Keeping learners busy

Answer: A. Meaningful learning

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SECTION B: MATHEMATICS – 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Mathematics questions in a teacher promotion examination may test everyday calculations rather than advanced mathematics. Candidates should revise percentages, fractions, ratio, algebra, geometry, statistics, probability, measurements and simple word problems.

Working through questions without immediately looking at the answer is especially useful in this section.

1. What is 25% of 240?

A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80

Answer: C. 60

2. Simplify 3/4 + 2/5.

A. 5/9
B. 23/20
C. 11/20
D. 17/20

Answer: B. 23/20

3. 7/8 − 1/4 = ?

A. 3/8
B. 5/8
C. 6/8
D. 7/8

Answer: B. 5/8

4. Express 0.75 as a fraction.

A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 3/4
D. 4/5

Answer: C. 3/4

5. Find the LCM of 12 and 18.

A. 24
B. 30
C. 36
D. 48

Answer: C. 36

6. Find the HCF of 24 and 36.

A. 6
B. 8
C. 12
D. 18

Answer: C. 12

7. 2³ × 2² = ?

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128

Answer: B. 32

8. √144 = ?

A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 14

Answer: C. 12

9. If x + 7 = 15, find x.

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Answer: C. 8

10. Solve 3x = 21.

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Answer: C. 7

11. Solve 2x + 5 = 15.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

Answer: B. 5

12. If x = 3, find 2x² + 1.

A. 10
B. 15
C. 19
D. 21

Answer: C. 19

13. Factorise x² + 5x + 6.

A. (x+1)(x+6)
B. (x+2)(x+3)
C. (x−2)(x−3)
D. (x+5)(x+1)

Answer: B. (x+2)(x+3)

14. What is the next number: 2, 4, 8, 16, ___?

A. 20
B. 24
C. 30
D. 32

Answer: D. 32

15. Simplify 15:25.

A. 2:5
B. 3:5
C. 5:3
D. 5:8

Answer: B. 3:5

16. Divide ₦600 in the ratio 2:3. The smaller share is:

A. ₦200
B. ₦240
C. ₦300
D. ₦360

Answer: B. ₦240

17. A shirt costs ₦5,000. A 10% discount gives a selling price of:

A. ₦4,000
B. ₦4,500
C. ₦4,900
D. ₦5,500

Answer: B. ₦4,500

18. Simple interest on ₦10,000 at 5% for 2 years is:

A. ₦500
B. ₦1,000
C. ₦1,500
D. ₦2,000

Answer: B. ₦1,000

19. An item bought for ₦8,000 and sold for ₦10,000 gives a profit of:

A. ₦1,000
B. ₦1,500
C. ₦2,000
D. ₦2,500

Answer: C. ₦2,000

20. The profit percentage in Question 19 is:

A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 40%

Answer: B. 25%

21. The sum of angles in a triangle is:

A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 360°

Answer: B. 180°

22. A right angle is:

A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°

Answer: C. 90°

23. Area of a rectangle 12 cm by 5 cm is:

A. 17 cm²
B. 34 cm²
C. 60 cm²
D. 120 cm²

Answer: C. 60 cm²

24. Perimeter of a rectangle 10 cm by 6 cm is:

A. 16 cm
B. 26 cm
C. 32 cm
D. 60 cm

Answer: C. 32 cm

25. Area of a triangle with base 10 cm and height 8 cm is:

A. 18 cm²
B. 40 cm²
C. 80 cm²
D. 90 cm²

Answer: B. 40 cm²

26. Circumference of a circle with radius 7 cm, using π = 22/7, is:

A. 22 cm
B. 44 cm
C. 49 cm
D. 154 cm

Answer: B. 44 cm

27. Area of a circle with radius 7 cm is:

A. 44 cm²
B. 77 cm²
C. 154 cm²
D. 308 cm²

Answer: C. 154 cm²

28. A hexagon has:

A. 5 sides
B. 6 sides
C. 7 sides
D. 8 sides

Answer: B. 6 sides

29. A complete revolution is:

A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 360°

Answer: D. 360°

30. A quadrilateral has:

A. 3 sides
B. 4 sides
C. 5 sides
D. 6 sides

Answer: B. 4 sides

31. Mean of 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 is:

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10

Answer: C. 8

32. Median of 3, 7, 5, 9 and 1 is:

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

Answer: B. 5

33. Mode of 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 3, 6 is:

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer: B. 3

34. Range of 5, 8, 12, 15 and 20 is:

A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20

Answer: C. 15

35. Probability of getting a head when a fair coin is tossed is:

A. 0
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 1

Answer: C. 1/2

36. Probability of rolling a 6 on a fair die is:

A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/6
D. 1/12

Answer: C. 1/6

37. A pie chart is mainly used to show:

A. Parts of a whole
B. Changes over time
C. Distance
D. Temperature only

Answer: A. Parts of a whole

38. A line graph is useful for showing:

A. Changes over time
B. Parts of a whole only
C. Names
D. Shapes

Answer: A. Changes over time

39. 2 metres equals:

A. 20 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 200 cm
D. 2,000 cm

Answer: C. 200 cm

40. 1 litre equals:

A. 100 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 1,000 ml
D. 10,000 ml

Answer: C. 1,000 ml

41. 2.5 kg equals:

A. 25 g
B. 250 g
C. 2,050 g
D. 2,500 g

Answer: D. 2,500 g

42. A car travels 180 km in 3 hours. Its average speed is:

A. 50 km/h
B. 60 km/h
C. 70 km/h
D. 90 km/h

Answer: B. 60 km/h

43. Five books cost ₦2,500. Eight books cost:

A. ₦3,000
B. ₦3,500
C. ₦4,000
D. ₦4,500

Answer: C. ₦4,000

44. 3/5 expressed as a percentage is:

A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%

Answer: D. 60%

45. Which is a prime number?

A. 21
B. 27
C. 29
D. 33

Answer: C. 29

46. 5² + 3² =

A. 25
B. 30
C. 34
D. 64

Answer: C. 34

47. Simplify 5a + 3a − 2a.

A. 4a
B. 5a
C. 6a
D. 10a

Answer: C. 6a

48. If 2x − 4 = 10, x is:

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Answer: C. 7

49. 2 + 3 × 4 =

A. 20
B. 14
C. 24
D. 18

Answer: B. 14

50. 20% of 500 is:

A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 150

Answer: C. 100

SECTION C: ENGLISH LANGUAGE – 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

English Language is another area candidates should not overlook. A teacher is expected to communicate clearly in both written and spoken forms, making grammar, vocabulary, concord and sentence construction useful areas for revision.

1. She ___ to school every day.

A. go
B. goes
C. going
D. gone

Answer: B. goes

2. They ___ football when it started raining.

A. play
B. played
C. were playing
D. are playing

Answer: C. were playing

3. I have lived here ___ 2015.

A. for
B. since
C. from
D. at

Answer: B. since

4. We have been waiting ___ two hours.

A. since
B. at
C. for
D. by

Answer: C. for

5. Musa is ___ honest man.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

Answer: B. an

6. The plural of “child” is:

A. childs
B. childes
C. children
D. childrens

Answer: C. children

7. Which is a noun?

A. Quickly
B. Beautiful
C. Teacher
D. Teach

Answer: C. Teacher

8. Which is an adjective?

A. Slowly
B. Beautiful
C. Run
D. Happiness

Answer: B. Beautiful

9. Which is an adverb?

A. Quick
B. Quickly
C. Quicker
D. Quickness

Answer: B. Quickly

10. Which is a pronoun?

A. Table
B. Beautiful
C. They
D. Run

Answer: C. They

11. By this time tomorrow, we ___ the examination.

A. finish
B. finished
C. will have finished
D. have finished

Answer: C. will have finished

12. She ___ her homework before going to bed.

A. completes
B. completed
C. had completed
D. has completed

Answer: C. had completed

13. I ___ breakfast every morning.

A. take
B. took
C. taken
D. taking

Answer: A. take

14. He ___ to Abuja yesterday.

A. goes
B. has gone
C. went
D. going

Answer: C. went

15. They ___ the work already.

A. have completed
B. completes
C. completing
D. complete yesterday

Answer: A. have completed

16. Neither the teacher nor the students ___ absent.

A. was
B. is
C. were
D. has

Answer: C. were

17. The news ___ very interesting.

A. are
B. were
C. is
D. have

Answer: C. is

18. Mathematics ___ my favourite subject.

A. are
B. were
C. is
D. have

Answer: C. is

19. The boys ___ playing football.

A. is
B. was
C. are
D. has

Answer: C. are

20. Each of the students ___ a book.

A. have
B. has
C. having
D. are having

Answer: B. has

21. The word nearest in meaning to “brave” is:

A. Cowardly
B. Courageous
C. Weak
D. Careless

Answer: B. Courageous

22. The opposite of “ancient” is:

A. Old
B. Historic
C. Modern
D. Former

Answer: C. Modern

23. “Generous” means:

A. Willing to give
B. Angry
C. Poor
D. Difficult

Answer: A. Willing to give

24. “Commence” means:

A. Stop
B. Begin
C. Delay
D. Finish

Answer: B. Begin

25. The opposite of “expand” is:

A. Increase
B. Extend
C. Contract
D. Develop

Answer: C. Contract

26. “Abolish” means:

A. Establish
B. End officially
C. Improve
D. Announce

Answer: B. End officially

27. “Assist” means:

A. Help
B. Prevent
C. Refuse
D. Ignore

Answer: A. Help

28. The opposite of “scarce” is:

A. Rare
B. Limited
C. Abundant
D. Small

Answer: C. Abundant

29. “Break the ice” means:

A. Destroy something
B. Start a friendly conversation
C. Become angry
D. End a relationship

Answer: B. Start a friendly conversation

30. “Hit the nail on the head” means:

A. Make a mistake
B. Say exactly the right thing
C. Work slowly
D. Avoid a problem

Answer: B. Say exactly the right thing

31. “Once in a blue moon” means:

A. Every day
B. Frequently
C. Very rarely
D. At night

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Answer: C. Very rarely

32. “A blessing in disguise” means:

A. Something apparently bad that turns out beneficial
B. A ceremony
C. A hidden enemy
D. A punishment

Answer: A. Something apparently bad that turns out beneficial

33. “Spill the beans” means:

A. Waste food
B. Reveal a secret
C. Cook
D. Promise

Answer: B. Reveal a secret

34. Choose the correct sentence:

A. She don’t like rice.
B. She doesn’t likes rice.
C. She doesn’t like rice.
D. She don’t likes rice.

Answer: C. She doesn’t like rice.

35. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence:

A. What is your name.
B. What is your name?
C. What is your name!
D. What is your name,

Answer: B. What is your name?

36. He is senior ___ me.

A. than
B. to
C. from
D. with

Answer: B. to

37. Neither Ahmed nor his friends ___ coming.

A. is
B. was
C. are
D. has

Answer: C. are

38. “Although he was tired, he continued working.” This is a:

A. Simple sentence
B. Compound sentence
C. Complex sentence
D. Phrase

Answer: C. Complex sentence

39. “John came home and prepared dinner.” This is a:

A. Simple sentence
B. Compound sentence
C. Complex sentence
D. Question

Answer: A. Simple sentence

Revision note: The sentence contains one subject and a compound predicate, so it is generally classified as a simple sentence, not a compound sentence.

40. You are a teacher, ___?

A. are you
B. aren’t you
C. isn’t it
D. don’t you

Answer: B. aren’t you

41. She doesn’t like coffee, ___?

A. does she
B. doesn’t she
C. is she
D. did she

Answer: A. does she

42. Let’s go, ___?

A. will we
B. shall we
C. do we
D. aren’t we

Answer: B. shall we

43. The teacher is good ___ Mathematics.

A. in
B. on
C. at
D. with

Answer: C. at

44. He is interested ___ politics.

A. on
B. in
C. at
D. for

Answer: B. in

45. The meeting starts ___ 9:00 a.m.

A. in
B. on
C. at
D. by

Answer: C. at

46. Choose the correctly spelt word:

A. Accomodation
B. Accommodation
C. Acommodation
D. Accommmodation

Answer: B. Accommodation

47. Choose the correctly spelt word:

A. Separate
B. Seperate
C. Sepparate
D. Separrate

Answer: A. Separate

48. The teacher gave me some useful ___.

A. advices
B. advice
C. advises
D. advise

Answer: B. advice

49. I have ___ my pen.

A. loose
B. lose
C. lost
D. loss

Answer: C. lost

50. The principal congratulated Ali and ___.

A. I
B. me
C. myself
D. mine

Answer: B. me

SECTION D: COMPUTER AND ICT – 50 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Basic computer knowledge is increasingly relevant to teaching and school administration. Teachers may use computers for lesson preparation, assessment, communication, record keeping, online applications and access to educational materials.

Candidates should therefore revise computer components, Microsoft Office applications, keyboard shortcuts, internet terminology and basic cybersecurity.

1. A computer is an electronic device that:

A. Only types documents
B. Processes data into information
C. Only performs calculations
D. Only stores pictures

Answer: B. Processes data into information

2. CPU stands for:

A. Central Processing Unit
B. Computer Processing Utility
C. Central Program Unit
D. Computer Personal Unit

Answer: A. Central Processing Unit

3. The CPU is commonly called the computer’s:

A. Memory
B. Brain
C. Screen
D. Keyboard

Answer: B. Brain

4. Which is an input device?

A. Monitor
B. Printer
C. Keyboard
D. Speaker

Answer: C. Keyboard

5. Which is an output device?

A. Mouse
B. Keyboard
C. Scanner
D. Monitor

Answer: D. Monitor

6. A device used to produce a hard copy is:

A. Monitor
B. Printer
C. Scanner
D. Keyboard

Answer: B. Printer

7. A device used to convert paper documents into digital form is:

A. Printer
B. Scanner
C. Speaker
D. Projector

Answer: B. Scanner

8. RAM stands for:

A. Read Access Memory
B. Random Access Memory
C. Rapid Access Machine
D. Random Application Module

Answer: B. Random Access Memory

9. Which computer memory is volatile?

A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Hard disk
D. Flash drive

Answer: B. RAM

10. ROM stands for:

A. Read Only Memory
B. Random Output Memory
C. Read Open Memory
D. Run Only Memory

Answer: A. Read Only Memory

11. Which is computer hardware?

A. Microsoft Word
B. Windows
C. Keyboard
D. Antivirus

Answer: C. Keyboard

12. Which is software?

A. Mouse
B. Monitor
C. Microsoft Word
D. Keyboard

Answer: C. Microsoft Word

13. An operating system is:

A. System software
B. Application software
C. Hardware
D. A virus

Answer: A. System software

14. Which is an operating system?

A. Microsoft Word
B. Windows
C. Chrome
D. PowerPoint

Answer: B. Windows

15. Microsoft Word is mainly used for:

A. Word processing
B. Spreadsheets
C. Database management
D. Presentations

Answer: A. Word processing

16. Microsoft Excel is mainly used for:

A. Word processing
B. Spreadsheets
C. Presentations
D. Web browsing

Answer: B. Spreadsheets

17. Microsoft PowerPoint is mainly used for:

A. Presentations
B. Database management
C. Programming
D. Antivirus

Answer: A. Presentations

18. Microsoft Access is mainly used for:

A. Database management
B. Presentations
C. Drawing
D. Browsing

Answer: A. Database management

19. A USB flash drive is mainly used for:

A. Data storage
B. Printing
C. Displaying images
D. Typing

Answer: A. Data storage

20. Ctrl + C is used to:

A. Cut
B. Copy
C. Paste
D. Save

Answer: B. Copy

21. Ctrl + V is used to:

A. Paste
B. Copy
C. Save
D. Print

Answer: A. Paste

22. Ctrl + X is used to:

A. Copy
B. Cut
C. Paste
D. Undo

Answer: B. Cut

23. Ctrl + Z is used to:

A. Undo
B. Redo
C. Save
D. Print

Answer: A. Undo

24. Ctrl + S is used to:

A. Select all
B. Save
C. Search
D. Send

Answer: B. Save

25. Ctrl + A is used to:

A. Select all
B. Save
C. Align
D. Add

Answer: A. Select all

26. Ctrl + P is commonly used to:

A. Paste
B. Print
C. Preview only
D. Protect

Answer: B. Print

27. In Excel, the intersection of a row and column is called a:

A. Table
B. Cell
C. Sheet
D. Box

Answer: B. Cell

28. An Excel formula normally begins with:

A. #
B. @
C. =
D. &

Answer: C. =

29. Which Excel function adds numbers?

A. COUNT
B. SUM
C. MAX
D. AVERAGE

Answer: B. SUM

30. Which Excel function calculates the mean?

A. SUM
B. COUNT
C. AVERAGE
D. TOTAL

Answer: C. AVERAGE

31. Excel columns are identified by:

A. Numbers
B. Letters
C. Symbols
D. Colours

Answer: B. Letters

32. Excel rows are identified by:

A. Letters
B. Numbers
C. Symbols
D. Colours

Answer: B. Numbers

33. WWW stands for:

A. World Wide Web
B. World Web Window
C. Wide World Work
D. Web World Wide

Answer: A. World Wide Web

34. A web browser is used to:

A. Access websites
B. Print documents
C. Repair computers
D. Create hardware

Answer: A. Access websites

35. Which is a web browser?

A. Google Chrome
B. Excel
C. Windows
D. PowerPoint

Answer: A. Google Chrome

36. URL stands for:

A. Uniform Resource Locator
B. Universal Research Link
C. United Resource Location
D. Uniform Reading Language

Answer: A. Uniform Resource Locator

37. Wi-Fi allows devices to:

A. Connect wirelessly to a network
B. Print without electricity
C. Increase screen size
D. Store files permanently

Answer: A. Connect wirelessly to a network

38. The Internet is:

A. One computer
B. A global network of interconnected networks
C. A printer
D. An operating system

Answer: B. A global network of interconnected networks

39. Email is mainly used for:

A. Sending and receiving electronic messages
B. Repairing computers
C. Printing
D. Programming hardware

Answer: A. Sending and receiving electronic messages

40. Which symbol is commonly found in an email address?

A. #
B. @
C. %
D. &

Answer: B. @

41. A computer virus is:

A. Hardware
B. Malicious software
C. An operating system
D. A search engine

Answer: B. Malicious software

42. Antivirus software is used to:

A. Detect and protect against malware
B. Create presentations
C. Increase screen size
D. Type documents

Answer: A. Detect and protect against malware

43. A strong password should preferably contain:

A. Only your name
B. 123456
C. A combination of letters, numbers and special characters
D. Your date of birth only

Answer: C. A combination of letters, numbers and special characters

44. Phishing is an attempt to:

A. Improve internet speed
B. Trick users into revealing sensitive information
C. Repair computers
D. Install printers

Answer: B. Trick users into revealing sensitive information

45. A backup is:

A. A copy of important data kept for recovery
B. A virus
C. A keyboard
D. A deleted file

Answer: A. A copy of important data kept for recovery

46. ICT stands for:

A. Information and Communication Technology
B. Internet Computer Technology
C. Information Computer Training
D. International Communication Technique

Answer: A. Information and Communication Technology

47. An advantage of ICT in teaching is that it can:

A. Provide access to diverse learning resources
B. Prevent collaboration
C. Eliminate learning
D. Always make lessons longer

Answer: A. Provide access to diverse learning resources

48. A projector can help a teacher to:

A. Display teaching materials
B. Store files permanently
C. Scan documents
D. Type documents

Answer: A. Display teaching materials

49. Online classes can be supported by:

A. Video-conferencing platforms
B. Typewriters
C. Photocopiers only
D. Calculators only

Answer: A. Video-conferencing platforms

50. Digital literacy means the ability to:

A. Use digital technologies effectively and responsibly
B. Repair every computer
C. Memorise computer terms only
D. Build computers from scratch

Answer: A. Use digital technologies effectively and responsibly

Important Topics to Revise Before the KADSUBEB Promotion Examination

Going through 200 questions is useful, but candidates should avoid relying entirely on memorisation. A question may be changed slightly in the actual examination while testing the same concept.

1. Revise Pedagogy Carefully

Pedagogy should receive serious attention because teachers are expected to understand how learning takes place.

Important topics include:

  • Learner-centred education
  • Teacher-centred education
  • Cooperative learning
  • Inquiry-based learning
  • Problem-based learning
  • Demonstration method
  • Lecture method
  • Lesson planning
  • Set induction
  • Classroom management
  • Inclusive education
  • Differentiated instruction
  • Remedial teaching
  • Formative assessment
  • Summative assessment
  • Diagnostic assessment
  • Reliability and validity
  • Bloom’s Taxonomy
  • Educational psychology
  • Motivation
  • Learning theories
  • Professional development

Candidates should also know the major names associated with educational theories.

For example, Jean Piaget is linked with cognitive development, Lev Vygotsky with social development and the Zone of Proximal Development, Albert Bandura with social learning, Ivan Pavlov with classical conditioning, B. F. Skinner with operant conditioning and Abraham Maslow with the hierarchy of needs.

These associations are common examination areas.

2. Practise Mathematics Without a Calculator

Many basic mathematics questions can be solved quickly if the candidate understands the underlying method.

For percentages, remember:

Percentage = (part ÷ whole) × 100

For simple interest:

SI = P × R × T ÷ 100

where P is the principal, R is the rate and T is the time.

For speed:

Speed = Distance ÷ Time

For the area of a rectangle:

Area = Length × Breadth

For a triangle:

Area = ½ × Base × Height

Candidates should also revise fractions, decimals, ratios, profit and loss, averages, probability and basic algebra.

3. Pay Attention to English Concord

Questions involving subject-verb agreement can be deceptively simple.

Examples include:

  • She goes to school.
  • They are working.
  • Each student has a book.
  • The news is interesting.
  • Mathematics is my favourite subject.

Words such as each, every, neither and either require careful attention because they can affect the form of the verb.

Vocabulary questions are also worth revising. Candidates should know common synonyms, antonyms, idiomatic expressions and frequently tested spellings.

4. Understand Basic Computer Terminology

Computer questions are often based on everyday knowledge.

Know the difference between:

Hardware: Physical components that can be touched, such as keyboards, monitors, printers and scanners.

Software: Programs and applications that operate on a computer.

Operating system: System software responsible for managing computer resources and providing a platform for applications.

RAM: Temporary, volatile working memory.

ROM: Non-volatile memory traditionally used for permanent or semi-permanent instructions.

Also revise Microsoft Word, Excel and PowerPoint.


KADSUBEB Promotion Examination Revision Strategy

A good revision strategy should involve more than reading answers repeatedly.

Step 1: Attempt the Questions First

Cover the answers and attempt the 200 questions independently.

Do not worry if you get several questions wrong during your first attempt. The purpose of practice is to identify weak areas.

Step 2: Mark Your Answers

Create four scores:

  • Pedagogy: ___/50
  • Mathematics: ___/50
  • English Language: ___/50
  • Computer/ICT: ___/50

Then calculate your total score out of 200.

For example, if you score 42 in Pedagogy, 38 in Mathematics, 44 in English and 40 in Computer, your total would be:

42 + 38 + 44 + 40 = 164/200

That gives you 82%.

Step 3: Study the Questions You Missed

Do not simply memorise the correct option.

Find out why your answer was wrong.

For example, if you selected “SUM” for a question asking which Excel function calculates the mean, review the difference between SUM, COUNT and AVERAGE.

This makes the knowledge more useful when the wording changes.

Step 4: Give More Attention to Weak Areas

If your Mathematics score is significantly lower than your other results, devote additional time to mathematics.

If you perform poorly in Pedagogy, revise learning theories, assessment, classroom management and teaching methods.

The same approach should be used for English and ICT.

Step 5: Practise Under Examination Conditions

After studying the questions, attempt them again under timed conditions.

Avoid checking your phone, searching for answers or consulting notes during the exercise.

The purpose is to simulate the pressure of an actual computer-based or written examination.

Common Mistakes Candidates Should Avoid

One major mistake is spending too much time on a difficult question. If an examination system permits you to move to another question, answer the ones you understand first and return to difficult ones later.

Another problem is rushing through simple questions. A candidate may know the correct concept but select the wrong option because of poor reading.

Read words such as NOT, EXCEPT, BEST, MAINLY, CORRECT and INCORRECT carefully.

Candidates should also avoid changing correct answers unnecessarily. If your first choice was based on a clear understanding of the question, do not change it simply because another option looks attractive.

Another common error is concentrating on one subject while neglecting the others. Since this revision resource contains four sections, candidates should aim for balanced preparation.

Quick Revision Checklist

Before the examination, make sure you can explain the following without consulting your notes.

Pedagogy

  • Meaning of pedagogy
  • Learner-centred teaching
  • Cooperative learning
  • Set induction
  • Lesson planning
  • Formative assessment
  • Summative assessment
  • Diagnostic assessment
  • Reliability
  • Validity
  • Bloom’s Taxonomy
  • Piaget’s theory
  • Vygotsky’s theory
  • Bandura’s theory
  • Pavlov’s conditioning
  • Skinner’s conditioning
  • Maslow’s hierarchy
  • Intrinsic and extrinsic motivation
  • Classroom management
  • Inclusive education
  • Differentiated instruction
  • Remedial teaching

Mathematics

  • Fractions
  • Decimals
  • Percentages
  • LCM and HCF
  • Ratio
  • Profit and loss
  • Simple interest
  • Algebra
  • Indices
  • Geometry
  • Area and perimeter
  • Mean, median, mode and range
  • Probability
  • Unit conversion
  • Speed, distance and time

English Language

  • Tenses
  • Articles
  • Parts of speech
  • Concord
  • Pronouns
  • Synonyms
  • Antonyms
  • Idioms
  • Punctuation
  • Sentence types
  • Question tags
  • Prepositions
  • Spelling
  • Countable and uncountable nouns

Computer and ICT

  • Hardware
  • Software
  • CPU
  • RAM
  • ROM
  • Input devices
  • Output devices
  • Operating systems
  • Microsoft Word
  • Microsoft Excel
  • Microsoft PowerPoint
  • Microsoft Access
  • Keyboard shortcuts
  • Excel formulas
  • Internet
  • Web browsers
  • URL
  • Wi-Fi
  • Email
  • Malware
  • Antivirus
  • Phishing
  • Password security
  • Backup
  • Digital literacy
  • ICT in education

Final Revision Advice for KADSUBEB Teachers

Preparation for a teacher promotion examination should begin with understanding rather than memorisation. The ability to explain why an answer is correct can make it easier to handle questions that are presented differently.

Start with the topics you already understand, then gradually work on areas where you have difficulties. Use short revision sessions instead of trying to study everything in one sitting.

For Pedagogy, focus on educational theories, teaching methods, assessment and classroom management. For Mathematics, practise calculations repeatedly until common operations become quick. For English, revise grammar, vocabulary and sentence construction. For Computer/ICT, learn the meanings and practical uses of common computer terms.

It is also useful to practise with a colleague. One person can read the question while the other gives an answer without seeing the options. This can reveal whether the concept has actually been understood.

Most importantly, do not assume that a practice question will appear word-for-word in the examination. The same topic may be tested through a different example or scenario.

Use the 200 questions in this guide as a revision tool, identify your weak areas and continue studying from relevant teaching materials and official information provided for your promotion exercise.

A teacher who understands the principles behind the answers is better prepared than one who simply memorises option A, B, C or D.

Frequently Asked Questions About KADSUBEB Teacher Promotion Examination

1. How many questions are in this KADSUBEB promotion examination practice?

This revision material contains 200 practice questions, divided into four sections of 50 questions each: Pedagogy, Mathematics, English Language and Computer/ICT.

2. Are these official KADSUBEB past questions?

They should be treated as practice and revision questions, not as an officially released KADSUBEB examination paper. Candidates should rely on official communication for confirmed examination details.

3. What topics should teachers study for the promotion examination?

Important areas include pedagogy, educational psychology, teaching methods, assessment, classroom management, Mathematics, English Language, computer literacy and ICT in education.

4. Is Pedagogy important for a teacher promotion examination?

Yes. Teachers should understand basic principles of teaching and learning, assessment, classroom management, learner motivation, inclusive education and educational psychology.

5. What Mathematics topics should I revise?

Focus on percentages, fractions, decimals, ratio, simple interest, profit and loss, algebra, geometry, statistics, probability, measurements and word problems.

6. What English Language topics should I study?

Revise grammar, tenses, concord, parts of speech, vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, idioms, punctuation, question tags, sentence types, spelling and prepositions.

7. What computer topics are useful for the examination?

Candidates should revise hardware, software, CPU, RAM, ROM, operating systems, Microsoft Office, keyboard shortcuts, Excel functions, internet terminology, cybersecurity and ICT in education.

8. How can I use these questions effectively?

Attempt all questions before looking at the answers. Record your score, identify the questions you missed and study the underlying topics before attempting the exercise again.

9. Should I memorise the answers?

Memorisation alone is not recommended. Understanding the concept behind each answer gives you a better chance of answering questions that use different wording.

10. What is the best way to prepare for the promotion examination?

Combine revision notes with practice questions. Study consistently, revise weak topics, practise under timed conditions and pay attention to official instructions concerning the examination.

Read Also: NIMASA-BEAP Portal Opens October 5, 2026: Eligibility & How to Apply 

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